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Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

11.06.2025 01:48

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

Why has Biden pulled ahead in battleground states and is now projected to win the 2024 presidency?

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

Do people have to be a pastor to baptize?

There's no rule.

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

You'll usually find your answer there.

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While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.